أسئلة الانترفيو أو المقابلة الشخصية في مجال السلامة والصحة المهنية

TEST #6

“ CRANE SAFETY “

1. It is critical to know the weight capacity of a Crane before hoisting a load?

TRUE or FALSE

2. Which of the following is not a type of industrial Crane?

A. Boom

B. Jib

C. Barrel

D. Overhead

3. When performing an inspection of a Crane, it is not necessary to check fluid

levels to see if they are within acceptable limits? TRUE or FALSE

4. Every Boom Crane has its own Load Chart? TRUE or FALSE

5. You can always adjust the angle of a Jib Crane? TRUE or FALSE

6. Which of the following Operational Safety Devices does not monitor and control

the handling capabilities of a Crane?

A. Overload Indicators

B. Emergency Stop Buttons

C. Anti-Slip Bevels

D. Limit Switches

7. To signal an Emergency Stop, extend both of your arms out (with palms down)

and move them horizontally. TRUE or FALSE

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TEST #7

“ CRANES, CHAINS AND HOISTS ”

1. Never use a crane hoist chain or wire rope as a sling. TRUE or FALSE

2. Tying knots in the chain or sling greatly increases the safe lifting capacity.

TRUE or FALSE

3. Keep your lift rope or chain as straight and parallel to the vertical as possible.

TRUE or FALSE

4. When carrying a load, always keep it 18 – 24 inches from the floor to avoid hangups.

TRUE or FALSE

5. It is acceptable to raise and lower loads quickly if you are not over the capacity

load. TRUE or FALSE

6. Make sure your chain or wire isn’t kinked or twisted or you will ruin your chain

guides. TRUE or FALSE

7. If a load is average size, the weight is not as important as the crane’s safe lifting

capacity. TRUE or FALSE

8. Chains are stored anywhere that is dry and clean. TRUE or FALSE

9. If a chain looks like has been stretched, it’s probably unsafe to use.

TRUE or FALSE.

10. If you have doubt about the safety of your equipment, then do not use it. TRUE

or FALSE.

11. It should take about how many pounds of pull to move a capacity load on manual

jib hoists?

A. 28 – 57

B. 58 – 69

C. 70 – 86

D. 97

12. A good sling angle is any angle under _____ degrees from the vertical.

A. 10

B. 15

C. 20

D. 25

13. The most important safety device is the:

A. Safety stop at the end of the hoist or crane railing

B. Emergency shut-off panel

C. Load capacity chart

D. Machine operator

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14. When inspecting metal chains, look for weakness where?

A. Near the hook

B. Where the chain rubs the hoist

C. Where metal links rub each other

D. Near the middle of the length

15. The condition in which all energy sources are neutralized is called:

A. Zero defects

B. Zero Mechanical System

C. Zero Mechanical State

D. Operating condition

16. When the crane is not being used, rest the hook assembly where?

A. On the machine

B. Do not let it rest

C. On the floor of the jobsite

D. Only on a wooden surface

17. When a hook is stretched more than _____% of its original size, it is unsafe to

use.

A. 15

B. 20

C. 25

D. 30

18. Jib hoist and cranes get out of alignment by:

A. Overloading

B. Jerking loads

C. Swinging loads

D. All of the above

19. What can you do to help protect your chains and slings?

A. Put padding over the sharp edges

B. Apply the load weight to the tip of the hook

C. Run the crane to the guide pins

D. Store them in metal cans

20. By running the hoist or crane all the way up or all the way down, you could

damage the:

A. Guide pins

B. Alignment plates

C. Chain/wire rope

D. All of the above

TEST #8

“ RESPIRATORY PROTECTION AND SAFETY “

1. Fumes are substances that evaporate from a solid or liquid?

TRUE or FALSE

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2. Vapors are substances given off from metals or plastics when they are heated?

TRUE or FALSE

3. A Cartridge Respirator captures gases through chemical means?

TRUE or FALSE

4. SCBA stands for “Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus”?

TRUE or FALSE

5. Which of the following conditions might prevent you from wearing a respirator?

A. Scars

B. Wearing glasses

C. A beard

D. All of the above

6. A respirator should be checked for damage and proper fit at least twice a year?

TRUE or FALSE

7. It is a good idea to use a wire brush to dislodge stubborn dirt when cleaning a

respirator? TRUE or FALSE

TEST #9

“ ASBESTOS AWARENESS “

1. Asbestos fibers are so small that they can only be seen with a microscope?

TRUE or FALSE

2. Asbestos is known for which of the qualities?

A. Fireproof

B. Lightweight

C. Absorb sound

D. All of the above

3. Asbestos fibers are 50 times more hazardous for people who smoke?

TRUE or FALSE

4. Asbestos can be found in some floor and ceiling tiles.

TRUE or FALSE

5. Asbestos can often be found in which of these areas, especially in older

buildings?

A. Utility rooms

B. Kitchens

C. Basements

D. All of the above

6. A slight deterioration of Asbestos-Containing Insulation will usually not result in a

release of fibers. TRUE or FALSE

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7. It is very important to wash your hands and face after coming into contact with

Asbestos-Containing materials? TRUE or FALSE

TEST #10

“ TUBERCULOSIS IN THE FIRST RESPONDER ENVIRONMENT “

1. Approximately how many Americans are estimated to carry “Latent TB”?

A. 500,000

B. 5 million

C. 10 to 15 million

2. Tuberculosis is the leading cause of death by infectious disease worldwide,

claiming more victims than even the AIDS virus? TRUE or FALSE

3. OSHA currently has a regulation dealing with “Tuberculosis in the Workplace”?

TRUE or FALSE

4. Which of the following types of people are at increased risk for developing

Tuberculosis infection?

A. HIV carriers

B. IV drug abusers

C. The elderly

D. Chemotherapy patients

E. All of the above

5. Approximately 50% of Tuberculosis patients interrupt or fail to complete their

treatment? TRUE or FALSE

6. Which of the following are symptoms of potential Tuberculosis infection?

A. Weight loss

B. Increased appetite

C. Fever

D. Increased energy levels

7. OSHA requires workers who are at risk of TB exposure to use High Efficient

Particulate (HEPA) respirators in exposure situations?

TRUE or FALSE

TEST #11

“ BLOODBORNE PATHOGENS IN THE WORKPLACE “

1. The AIDS virus has a direct effect on the immune system.

TRUE or FALSE

2. Hepatitis B has a direct effect on the immune system. TRUE or FALSE

3. A bloodborne pathogen is a very small organism that is

A. Carried, reproduced and spread in the blood or blood products

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B. Capable of causing disease

C. Both A and B

D. None of the above

4. The HIV virus has been found in

F. Blood

G. Semen

H. Breast milk

I. All of the above

5. Splashes of infected body fluids into the eye cannot cause a disease to be

transmitted. TRUE or FALSE

6. Latex gloves may be cleaned and reused after coming into contact with a

bloodborne pathogen. TRUE or FALSE

7. Sanitizing is the process of killing harmful bacteria by using chemicals such as

germicides. TRUE or FALSE

8. One cup of bleach per one gallon of water makes a good sanitizing agent.

TRUE or FALSE

9. One of the most potentially hazardous sources of infection is a needle stick.

TRUE or FALSE

10. The only prevention is to use caution, common sense and follow your

organization’s policies and procedures relating to bloodborne pathogens.

TRUE or FALSE

TEST #12

“ BACK INJURY PREVENTION / SAFE LIFTING ”

1. Degeneration of spinal discs is the most common cause of backaches.

TRUE or FALSE

2. You have to lift incorrectly for many years to develop a back problem.

TRUE or FALSE

3. When lifting, your back should be as straight as possible. TRUE or FALSE

4. You should lift objects as quickly as possible to reduce stress on your back.

TRUE or FALSE

5. Twisting your back while lifting is very dangerous. TRUE or FALSE

6. Foot placement has little to do with safe lifting. TRUE or FALSE

7. When lifting, bend your legs and your back. TRUE or FALSE

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8. Lifting an object over your head is no different than lifting an item off the floor.

TRUE or FALSE

9. Safe lifting procedures are only necessary when objects over eight pounds are

lifted. TRUE or FALSE.

10. Discs in your back can be damaged by improper lifting. TRUE or FALSE

11. Which of the following is not a part of your spinal column?

A. Bones or vertebra

B. Discs

C. Skin

D. Nerves

12. When you stretch, __________ in your back stretch also.

A. Spinal discs

B. Spinal fluid

C. Ligaments

D. All of the above

13. An object weighing 10 pounds requires __________ of pressure in your back to

lift the object.

A. 10 pounds

B. 1000 pounds

C. 100 pounds

D. None of the above

14. When lifting anything, bend your legs, not your:

A. Arms

B. Elbows

C. Back

D. None of the above

15. Safe lifting techniques should be used:

A. At home

B. At work

C. At play

D. All of the above

16. If an object is too heavy to lift on your own, you should:

A. Lift it anyway

B. Get help

C. Report it to management

D. Let someone else lift it

17. The __________ in your back act as shock absorbers.

A. Discs

B. Vertebra

C. Nerves

D. Ligaments

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18. Bending your __________ when lifting can damage your discs.

A. Legs

B. Back

C. Arms

D. All of the above

19. Safe lifting procedures prevent:

A. Back injuries

B. Back strain

C. Back pain

D. All of the above

20. Which of the following can cause a back injury?

A. Twisting and lifting

B. Stretching and lifting

C. Bending your legs

D. Both A and B

TEST #13

“ MACHINE GUARDING & CONVEYOR SAFETY “

1. After locking out equipment, a properly labeled __________ must be placed on

the lock.

A. Label

B. Tag

C. Warning sign

D. None of the above

2. The basic rule about guarding is “If a moving part of a machine can cause injury,

it needs to be guarded.” TRUE or FALSE

3. The purpose of lockout/tagout procedures is to minimize the possibility of the

machine to make unexpected movements while being services or maintained.

TRUE or FALSE

4. The unauthorized removal of a guard is considered a serious violation of safety

rules. TRUE or FALSE

5. It is ok to begin operation of a machine without its guards only if the guards are

placed back in position during operation. TRUE or FALSE

6. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. The unauthorized removal of a guard is a serious violation of safety rules.

B. Operating a machine without proper guarding is a safety hazard.

C. Individual interpretations of the safety rules can lead to disaster.

D. Machine safety simply means protection of the operator at the point of

operation.

7. Machine guards do work but it’s up to the individual to make the safety program

successful. TRUE or FALSE

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8. Locks and tags on machinery are to be removed by:

A. The supervisor

B. Any machine operator

C. The inspector during inspections

D. The person that installed the lock and tag

9. The ultimate purpose of lockout/tagout is accident prevention.

TRUE or FALSE

10. Crossing over a conveyor belt is an acceptable procedure as long as it is not in

operation. TRUE or FALSE

TEST #14

“ HOW TO PREVENT SLIPS, TRIPS, AND FALLS ”

1. Floor wax used on tile floors should also be used on concrete floors.

TRUE or FALSE

2. Electrical and phone cords can create tripping hazards.

TRUE or FALSE

3. Cleaning the top of walk off mats is important, but it is a waste of time to clean

the bottom of the walk off mat. TRUE or FALSE

4. If you see water spilled on the floor you should clean it up or report it to your

supervisor. TRUE or FALSE

5. Very few slips and falls occur because the person is not watching where he or

she is walking. TRUE or FALSE

6. Never stand on the top two steps of any stepladder. TRUE or FALSE

7. The type of shoes you wear have little to do with slips and falls.

TRUE or FALSE

8. Maintenance personnel should never pour unused floor wax back into the wax

container. TRUE or FALSE

9. Oil, grease and moisture can build up on walk off mats.

TRUE or FALSE.

10. All spills are cleaned up suing the same procedures. TRUE or FALSE.

11. Walk off mats should be:

A. 15 – 25 feet long

B. Used when it rains or snows only

C. Used in winter only

D. All of the above

12. The leading cause of slips and falls is:

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A. Tripping hazards

B. Electrical cords

C. Not paying attention to where you are walking

E. Snow or ice

13. What action would be recommended if you find water spilled on the floor?

A. Clean it up

B. Report the spill to your supervisor if you can’t clean it up

C. Don’t worry about it because it’s not your job

D. Both A and B

14. You can reduce your chance of experiencing a slip or fall by:

A. Watching where you walk

B. Using walk off mats in winter

C. Avoiding the use of stairways

D. All of the above

15. Falls from ladders can be caused by:

A. Air conditioning

B. Greasy or oily shoes

C. Standing below the top two steps

D. Electrical tools

16. Which type of walking surface should be kept clean?

A. Tile

B. Concrete

C. Carpeting

D. All of the above

17. When cleaning up a spill containing grease, oil or mayonnaise, you should use:

A. Water

B. Abrasive cleaner

C. Kerosene

D. Baking soda

18. Slips and falls can happen when:

A. Getting into or out of a truck

B. Walking through parking lots

C. Walking up or down stairs

D. All of the above

19. When using the stairs you should:

A. Never use the handrail

B. Use the handrail when going up

C. Use the handrail when going down

D. Always use the handrail

20. Which condition can cause stairs to be unsafe:

A. Torn carpet

B. Damaged tread nosing

C. Dirty stairs

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D. All of the above

TEST #15

“ HEARING CONSERVATION AND SAFETY “

1. How many Americans have measurable hearing losses?

A. 150,000

B. 1,500,000

C. 10,000,000

2. Which of the following can cause hearing loss?

A. Disease

B. Loud noise

C. Physical injury

D. All of the above

3. One of the effects of “Threshold Shift” is losing the ability to hear sounds at only

low frequencies? TRUE or FALSE

4. You should wear hearing protection if you are exposed to noise levels that

average over how many decibels in an 8 hour day?

A. 75 dB’s

B. 90 dB’s

C. 105 dB’s

5. Which type of equipment is generally thought to provide the best protection?

A. Disposable ear plugs

B. Canal caps

C. Earmuffs

6. An audiogram is the results of a hearing test plotted on a graph?

TRUE or FALSE

7. Many times hearing loss is temporary and will return in a few hours.

TRUE or FALSE

TEST #16

“ EYE SAFETY “

1. Which of these is not a part of the eye?

A. Cornea

B. Pupil

C. Carpal tunnel

2. Which of these provide the best protection against chemical splashes?

A. Safety glasses

B. Visors

C. Goggles

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3. Contact lenses can easily melt from sparks and will absorb chemicals quickly?

TRUE or FALSE

4. The best way to remove a particle from your eye is to rub the affected eye

vigorously? TRUE or FALSE

5. If your eyes are splashed with a hazardous chemical you should rinse them for a

minimum of how many minutes?

A. 5 minutes

B. 10 minutes

C. 15 minutes

6. Burns to the retina often heal within a few days? TRUE or FALSE

7. Light itself can sometimes damage the eye? TRUE or FALSE

TEST #17

“ SAFETY SHOWERS AND EYE WASHES “

1. To be effective, showers and eye washes should supply a flow of water for at

least how many minutes?

A. 5 minutes

B. 15 minutes

C. 25 minutes

2. Most incidents that require using a shower or eye wash are the result of

carelessness? TRUE or FALSE

3. Which of the following are good ways to determine whether the chemical you are

using is hazardous?

A. Consult the MSDS

B. “Sniff” the container for a tell-tale smell

C. Read the container label

4. If there is a drain under a safety shower, water should usually be kept in the

trap? TRUE or FALSE

5. When helping a splash victim shower, make sure they leave their clothes on so

residual contamination doesn’t remain in the cloth?

TRUE or FALSE

6. Shower water and contaminated clothing may need to be disposed of as

“hazardous waste”? TRUE or FALSE

TEST #18

“ HEAT STRESS “

1. What is the normal body temperature?

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A. 96.8o

B. 98.6o

C. 99.8o

D. 106o

2. To maintain your body’s internal “balance” you must replace both fluids and

minerals? TRUE or FALSE

3. The most serious heat related illness is …?

A. Heat stress

B. Heat stroke

C. Heat exhaustion

4. In hot environments how much water can the average person’s body lose in an

hour through sweating?

A. 1 pint

B. 1 quart

C. 1 gallon

5. If you are working in a high heat area, doctors suggest that you should stop for a

drink every how many minutes?

A. 10 minutes

B. 15 to 20 minutes

C. 60 minutes

6. Clothes of dark colored materials are best in hot environments?

TRUE or FALSE

7. Alcohol is as good as any other type of drink for restoring fluid loss?

TRUE or FALSE

8. When using a fan to cool your work area always move air away from where you

are working? TRUE or FALSE

TEST #19

“ LADDER SAFETY “

1. If using a straight ladder to reach a roof, how many rungs should extend beyond

the roof edge for proper support?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

2. What is the correct relationship between a ladder’s distance away from the wall

verses its “working length”?

A. 3 to 1

B. 4 to 1

C. 5 to 1

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3. When moving a ladder from one location to another, you should carry it

vertically? TRUE or FALSE

4. When climbing a ladder, how many “contact points” (hands and feet) should be

touching the ladder at all times?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

5. Which rungs of a step ladder are not safe to stand on?

A. Top two rungs

B. Top rung

C. Top three rungs

6. The safest way to pull materials up the ladder is by hauling them up as you go?

TRUE or FALSE

7. How many rungs of an extension ladder should overlap in the center when it is

extended?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

TEST #20

“ SCAFFOLD SAFETY “

1. Any scaffold must be constructed to safely hold _________ the weight that is the

maximum intended load.

A. 2 times

B. 3 times

C. 4 times

D. 5 times

2. Falls from scaffolds are the 2nd most common cause for disabling and fatal fall

injuries of construction workers. TRUE or FALSE

3. Only scaffold grade planking may be used in the construction of scaffolds.

TRUE or FALSE

4. Falls from ladders are the 3rd most common reason for fatalities among

construction workers. TRUE or FALSE

5. Electrical equipment may be raised by the power cord.

TRUE or FALSE

6. OSHA requires that one or more qualified people be on site to supervise the

erection, use and disassembly of scaffolds. TRUE or FALSE

7. An acceptable means to gain access to a scaffold is to climb up the cross braces.

TRUE or FALSE

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8. According to OSHA’s general rule, at what height above a lower level should

guardrails and/or a personal arrest system be used?

A. 6 feet or more

B. 8 feet or more

C. 10 feet or more

D. 15 feet or more

TEST #21

“ HAND AND POWER TOOL SAFETY”

1. A simple screwdriver causes over one-hundred deaths each year.

TRUE or FALSE

2. Most wrench accidents are caused by the wrench slipping off the bolt or nut you

are trying to turn. TRUE or FALSE

3. Using a cheater bar with a wrench is acceptable though not recommended.

TRUE or FALSE

4. Dull blades and bits on power tools can contribute to personal injury.

TRUE or FALSE

5. Grounding and double insulation are two safety devices that are built into each

power tool. TRUE or FALSE

6. Say no to cheater bars at all times. TRUE or FALSE

7. A three-prong plug means the equipment or tool is grounded and double

insulated. TRUE or FALSE

8. Using three-prong adapters is not recommended, but there is no harm possible.

TRUE or FALSE

9. A good safety attitude is the first step in injury prevention.

TRUE or FALSE.

10. Using octopus receptacles and plugs can overload the wall receptacle and trip a

circuit breaker, but there is actually no possibility of personal injury.

TRUE or FALSE.

11. When you need to loosen a frozen nut or bolt and hand pressure doesn’t do it,

you may always use which of the following?

A. Striking tool

B. Penetrating oil

C. Hammer

D. All of the above

12. The third prong on a power tool always signifies that the tool is:

A. Grounded

B. Double insulated

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C. 220 or higher

E. Both A and B

13. What should you look for when you find a tool with only two prongs on the plug?

A. An octopus receptacle

B. An external wire running from the ground mechanism

C. “Double Insulated” on the manufacturer’s data plate

D. Another tool because this one should never be used

14. When uncertain of safety rules, regulations, policies or procedures, always:

A. Ask a co-worker

B. Refer to your employee handbook/orientation packet

C. Consult with your supervisor

D. Follow OSHA standards first and foremost

15. What is the first step in preventing injuries?

A. Safety training by a professional in the trade

B. A good safety attitude

C. Supervisory awareness of safety needs

D. The development of a safety board

16. What is the first rule in hand and power tool safety?

A. Inspect it for safe serviceability

B. Check for double insulation or a proper three-prong connection

C. Insure working conditions of machine guarding and emergency stop

functions

D. All of the above

17. What should you do prior to operating any power tool?

A. Inspect it for safe serviceability

B. Always use personal protection equipment

C. Insure working conditions of machine guarding and emergency stop

functions

D. All of the above

18. The most common protection on electrical tools and appliances is what?

A. Double insulating

B. Grounding

C. Emergency shut-off switch

D. Machine guarding

19. How can you tell if a tool or appliance is double insulated?

A. When the cord has three prongs

B. When the cord has two prongs

C. When the manufacturer’s data plate states it as being so

D. Both A and C

20. What is the danger of using grounded equipment, tools or appliances?

A. The second measure of insulation will fail

B. A disconnection between the ground wire and the ground

C. The possibility for personal injury from misuse

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E. Shock or electrocution via power surges

TEST #22

“ FORKLIFT OPERATOR TRAINING”

1. The engineering principles of the forklift are important because if you understand

how the forklift works, you’ll be able to make good decisions on how to properly

operate the equipment under normal operating situations.

TRUE or FALSE

2. As you raise the forks, the center of gravity shifts towards the rear of the vehicle

which stabilizes the forklift and keeps it from turning over.

TRUE or FALSE

3. When moving your forklift onto trucks and trailers, the trailer wheels must be

chocked. TRUE or FALSE

4. When operating your vehicle, the forks should be raised about 10 inches off the

floor, to avoid hitting any bumps or other objects on the floor.

TRUE or FALSE

5. When refueling with propane, always use hand, eye and face protection because

the propane is very cold and can cause serious injuries.

TRUE or FALSE

6. The data plate normally provides three maximum lifting capacities. The reason

for this is that you may have different load centers, which can affect the

maximum lifting capacity. TRUE or FALSE

7. Forklifts are built with a suspension system similar to cars. This allows for shock

absorbers, which keep the vehicle stable when you run over a bump or piece of

wood. TRUE or FALSE

8. If your horn doesn’t work, that doesn’t mean the vehicle is unsafe, it just means

that it should be reported to your supervisor so it can get fixed as soon as

possible. TRUE or FALSE

9. Riders are not permitted on forklifts, except in the cab of the truck.

TRUE or FALSE.

10. On electric forklifts, it’s okay to operate the vehicle until the battery is dead, then

you know it’s time to change batteries. TRUE or FALSE.

11. When lifting a load, you must consider:

A. The load center and weight of the load

B. The load center and how high the mast will be raised

C. The front tires are the steering tires and accidents can happen more

easily

D. None of the above

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12. Many forklift accidents are caused by the rear end swing and this means:

A. Operators can’t see when backing up. They may run into objects.

B. Rear tires are the steering tires and it’s easy to run into walls and other

objects.

C. The front tires are the steering tires and accidents can happen more

easily.

D. None of the above

13. If there are leaks in the oil, fuel, hydraulic or transmission system:

A. Go slowly with your foot on the break

B. The forklift should be taken out of service until repaired or replaced

C. That doesn’t mean the vehicle is unsafe

D. None of the above

14. When traveling on a forklift, the operator must:

A. Travel with the load to the rear if the load blocks vision

B. Keep the forks raised approximately 4 to 6 inches off the floor surface

C. Never travel with the load raised

D. All of the above

15. When charging electric forklift batteries:

A. Proper ventilation must be used

B. Only maintenance personnel are allowed to charge batteries

C. The battery caps must remain on

D. Both A and C

16. Safe operating rules require that:

A. There are no riders on forklifts

B. A forklift must travel at the speed of a person walking normally

C. Horns must be honked when traveling near a blind corner

D. All of the above

17. A load capacity of 5000 pounds means:

A. You can safely lift 5000 pounds to the maximum height of the forklift

B. You can safely 5000 pounds, if the mast remains in the vertical position

C. You must first determine the load center as stated on the data plate

D. Both A and B

18. When getting off your vehicle, the minimum requirement for stopping should be:

A. Shut off the motor and remove the keys

B. Place gear in neutral and set the parking brake

C. Place gear in neutral, set parking brake and cut off motor

D. Both A and B

19. Exit doors and electrical panels must remain unblocked except for:

A. When parking the forklift, but the operator will remain within 25 feet

B. The forklift key will remain in the ignition system

C. Lunch periods when the operator is near the forklift

D. None of the above

20. When driving on ramps, the following safety rules apply:

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A. Drive down, back up

B. Wheels on trailers must be chocked

C. Drive up, back down

D. Go slowly with your foot on the brake

TEST #23

“ COMPRESSED GAS CYLINDERS “

1. Once a gas is forced into a cylinder, the gas is no longer under pressure.

TRUE or FALSE

2. Which of the following are good sources of information regarding what is

contained in any Compressed Gas Cylinder.

A. The MSDS

B. Labels on the cylinder

C. Tags attached to the cylinder valve

3. A Cryogenic material is one that can produce extremely low temperatures?

TRUE or FALSE

4. If compressed oxygen escapes into the air, it won’t cause any problems, since

we all breath oxygen every day? TRUE or FALSE

5. It is alright to store Flammable Gases and Oxidizers next to each other?

TRUE or FALSE

6. You can tell what gas is in a cylinder by the color of the cylinder?

TRUE or FALSE

7. Which of these pieces of equipment is important when using a compressed gas

cylinder?

A. A regulator

B. A SCUBA fitting

C. A pressure release valve

8. There are not pressure relief devices on cylinders used to store toxic or

poisonous substances? TRUE or FALSE

TEST #24

“ WELDING SAFETY “

1. Which of the following hazards can be encountered during the welding process?

A. Flying sparks

B. Electric shock

C. Toxic fumes

D. All of the above

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2. Welding can be prohibited in certain areas of your facility?

TRUE or FALSE

3. To reduce the risk of fire, debris should be cleared for a 10 foot radius around the

welding work area? TRUE or FALSE

4. Which of the following substances are so hazardous that mechanical ventilation

must be used when welding them?

A. Stainless steel

B. Mercury

C. Zinc

D. All of the above

5. Mechanical ventilation is called for in work areas where ceilings are less than 16

feet high? TRUE or FALSE

6. It is not necessary to warn others in the area when you are arc welding, since the

light it gives off isn’t hazardous? TRUE or FALSE

7. Never begin to weld unless you have received authorization?

TRUE or FALSE

TEST #25

“ CONFINED SPACE ENTRY ”

1. All personal protective equipment provided by your employer must be site and

hazard specific. TRUE or FALSE

2. Persons entering a confined space from the top must have a safety belt of the

harness type that suspends a person in an upright position.

TRUE or FALSE

3. The employees inside the confined space should never be out of sight of the

immediate standby person. TRUE or FALSE

4. It is your responsibility to follow your organization’s policies and procedures when

working in or around confined spaces, even when you don’t understand them.

TRUE or FALSE

5. One of the greatest concerns in confined space entry is unauthorized entry,

especially in the event of an emergency. TRUE or FALSE

6. A key aspect of OSHA’s confined space rule involves the written program for

every confined space in a construction area. TRUE or FALSE

7. The written program for confined space entry should include proper equipment to

test, monitor, and ventilate the space.

TRUE or FALSE

8. Hot work cannot be conducted in a confined space.

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TRUE or FALSE

9. It is the contractor’s responsibility to discover any permit-required confined

spaces. TRUE or FALSE.

10. The contractor and employer must coordinate their operations when entering a

permit-required space and contractors must be briefed after work has been

completed in the space. TRUE or FALSE.

11. A confined space is:

A. Any space big enough for occupancy

B. Any space big enough for occupancy with limited entrance and exit

C. Any space big enough for occupancy with limited entrance or exit and not

designed for continuous occupancy.

D. None of the above

12. A key aspect of OSHA’s confined space rule involves the:

A. Employee testing

B. Supervisory councils

C. 220 or higher

D. Both A and B

13. One of the most important parts of confined space entry is testing for:

A. Proper electrical bonding and grounding

B. Hazardous atmosphere

C. Proper respiratory fit prior to entry

D. Program facilitator

14. When testing for toxic or hazardous atmospheres, the test must be made:

A. At the top of the space

B. In the middle of the space

C. At the bottom of the space

D. All of the above

15. Which of the following is not considered an energy source?

A. Compressed gas cylinder

B. Light switch

C. Air pump

D. Filtering face piece

16. All confined space cleaning materials and agents need to be checked for:

A. Radioactivity

B. Compatibility

C. Toxicity

D. Fluoride content

17. The emergency standby person must be:

A. Trained as an emergency medical technician (EMT)

B. Trained in First Aid and CPR

C. An EMT, trained in First Aid and CPR, and remain in view of confined

space occupant

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D. A supervisor

18. Permit workers must have the following items except:

A. Specific permit for the space to be entered

B. List of hazards in the permit space

C. Purpose of entry

D. Six-digit OSHA employee identification code

19. When you need more information on determining specific hazards and/or

compatibility it is best to check:

A. The labeling of the product

B. With the nearest poison control center

C. Material Safety Data Sheets provided by your employer

D. With another employee

20. Energy sources may include all of the following except:

A. Toxicity

B. Pneumatics

C. Thermal

D. Effects of gravity

TEST #26

“ PERSONAL PROTECTIVE EQUIPMENT“

1. Leather or metal mesh gloves provide the best protection when working with

sharp edges? TRUE or FALSE

2. Soft rubber soled safety shoes are best on what types of surfaces?

A. Concrete

B. Dry surfaces

C. Wet wood

3. In most cases hard hats and bump caps are interchangeable?

TRUE or FALSE

4. The best protection from chemical splashes is?

A. Safety glasses

B. Goggles

C. Visors

5. You can continue to use an electrical glove on the job if it has a hole in it, as long

as the hole is less than one-sixteenth inch in diameter.

TRUE or FALSE

6. The initials SCBA stand for what?

A. Safety-Contained Breathing Air

B. “Scrubbed Chemical” Breathable Air

C. Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus

7. Air filter cartridges are labeled and color-coded to provide what information?

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A. What model of respirator they can be used with

B. What substances they filter out

C. How long they are good for

TEST #27

“ HANDLING & TRANSPORTING HAZARDOUS MATERIALS “

1. Which of the training listed below is required by the DOT’s Hazardous Materials

Regulations?

A. General awareness

B. Safety training

C. Function-specific

D. Driver training

E. All of the above

2. Shippers of hazardous materials must provide a basic description of the material

and a list of the material’s immediate hazards with each shipment?

TRUE or FALSE

3. Which of the following provides information about a material’s potential hazards?

A. MSDS’s

B. Shipping papers

C. Hazard class labels

D. All of the above

4. You are permitted to accept packages of hazardous materials with damaged

labels as long as you can read the full product name?

TRUE or FALSE

5. How many hazard classes are there?

A. Four

B. Seven

C. Nine

D. Eleven

6. Which provides the best eye protection from chemical splashes?

A. Safety glasses

B. Safety glasses with side shields

C. Goggles

7. A hazardous material’s shipping papers must contain a 24-hour emergency

phone number? TRUE or FALSE

TEST #28

“ HAZARD COMMUNICATIONS – YOUR RIGHT TO KNOW ”

1. A hazardous chemical is any chemical that poses a physical or health hazard.

TRUE or FALSE

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2. Physical hazards include those chemicals creating acute or chronic health

effects, damaging the eyes, lungs, skin, or mucous membranes.

TRUE or FALSE

3. It is best to treat every chemical as a physical and health hazard.

TRUE or FALSE

4. Water can be dangerous if you don’t use it properly. TRUE or FALSE

5. If you want more detail on any chemical used in the workplace, just ask you’re

your employer for the Material Safety Data Sheet. TRUE or FALSE

6. It is up to the supervisor to identify the contents of all chemical containers. TRUE

or FALSE

7. When cleaning with chemicals, more is always better to get the area cleaner.

TRUE or FALSE

8. One section of the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) identifies any

carcinogenic or cancer causing components of the chemical.

TRUE or FALSE

9. It is always a good idea to notify your local fire department if you use chemicals

requiring special fire fighting techniques or equipment.

TRUE or FALSE.

10. The best protection available to every employee concerning hazardous materials

are the Material Safety Data Sheets. TRUE or FALSE.

11. When you have questions about safety rules, regulations, policies and/or

procedures, always:

A. Consult with your supervisor

B. Follow company policies or procedures first

C. Refer to OSHA standards

D. Reread your employee handbook

12. When you are uncertain about the proper method of safety to follow, you should:

A. Ask a co-worker

B. Follow company policies or procedures first

C. Follow OSHA requirements first and foremost

D. Follow NIOSH standards first

13. What is your greatest weapon against hazardous chemicals?

A. Personal protection equipment

B. Material Safety Data Sheets

C. Awareness of potential hazards

D. None of the above

14. Which of the following is not a health hazard?

A. Water

B. Pyrophoric chemicals

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C. Gasoline

D. Bleach

15. Which of the following is a health hazard?

A. Organic peroxide

B. Compressed air

C. Sodium chloride

D. Unleaded gasoline

16. The reactivity section of a chemical Material Safety Data Sheet gives what

information?

A. Physical characteristics of the chemical

B. Hazardous and cancer causing ingredients

C. Engineering and management information on physical characteristics

D. Level of compatibility or incompatibility with other chemicals

17. Compressed air is what kind of hazard?

A. Health

B. Physical

C. Both health and physical

D. It is not a hazard

18. Where can you quickly find important information about a chemical in addition to

Material Safety Data Sheets?

A. On the label

B. On the chemical sign

C. Your supervisor

D. All of the above

19. The Material Safety Data Sheets are used by:

A. Management to determine the type of safety equipment needed to protect

against potential hazards.

B. Manufacturers to provide all the necessary information needed to

encourage awareness of potential hazards.

C. You to follow all safety and protection precautions to avoid injury through

exposure to potential hazards.

D. The MSDS’s are used by all of these people

20. When personal protection equipment is requested it is:

A. Your responsibility to wear it at all times, as specified

B. An option that you can accept or reject

C. Acceptable to refuse it after you have read the proper MSDS’s

TEST #29

“ FIRE PREVENTION RESPONSIBILITIES “

1. What does it take to achieve fire prevention?

A. Team effort and individual responsibility

B. Knowing the location of fire extinguishers

C. Keeping aisles clear

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D. Keeping doors unblocked

2. Smoking should be done in:

A. Restrooms (WC’s)

B. Break rooms

C. Outside

D. Designated areas

3. Oily rags should be stored in:

A. Cardboard boxes

B. Glass jars

C. Plastic containers with lids

D. Metal containers with metal lids

4. Electrical outlets should be used with octopus plugs to increase its potential

usage. TRUE or FALSE

5. Flexible cords may be used as fixed wiring. TRUE or FALSE

6. Inspect work areas frequently. TRUE or FALSE

7. Nothing should be stored within __________ of a sprinkler head.

A. 5 – 8 inches

B. 10 – 14 inches

C. 20 – 42 inches

D. 18 – 36 inches

8. ABC extinguishers are designed to be used for fires involving:

A. Combustibles

B. Flammable liquids

C. Electrical

D. All of the above

TEST #30

“ FIRE EXTINGUISHER TRAINING AND USE ”

1. An ABC type extinguisher will extinguish all classes of fire.

TRUE or FALSE

2. Fire extinguishers are designed to fight small and large fires.

TRUE or FALSE

3. When you use the word PASS, this simply is a method of remembering to Pull

the pin, Aim the nozzle, Squeeze the handle and Sweep from side to side.

TRUE or FALSE

4. Halon is no longer being used, as it depletes the ozone.

TRUE or FALSE

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5. Good housekeeping is one of the most important parts of fire prevention.

TRUE or FALSE

6. Flammables and combustibles should be kept in safety containers and properly

stored when not in use. TRUE or FALSE

7. Life safety is paramount. Saving property is secondary.

TRUE or FALSE

8. Smoke is responsible for killing more people in fires than anything else.

TRUE or FALSE

9. When using a fire extinguisher to extinguish a fire, make sure the fire is

completely out. TRUE or FALSE.

10. A carbon dioxide or CO2 extinguisher reduces the oxygen from the fire, causing

the fire to go out. TRUE or FALSE.

11. Once an extinguisher has been used, it must be:

A. Replaced in its proper place

B. Turned in to your supervisor

C. Serviced and recharged

D. None of the above

12. If you stand too close to the fire before squeezing the handle on a fire

extinguisher, you could:

A. Damage the handle

B. Spread the flames by the pressure of the expelling gas

C. Burn yourself by being too close to the fire

D. None of the above

13. Extinguishers can become damaged, so during inspections be sure to check:

A. The fire extinguisher holder

B. Visible damage to the container and handle

C. Emergency action plan location

D. None of the above

14. A service tag on an extinguisher is good for:

A. One year

B. Two years

C. Three years

D. Five years

15. Combustion is created by interaction of three basic elements. They are:

A. Fire, smoke, and ignition source

B. Fire, smoke, and fuel

C. Heat/ignition, oxygen, and fuel

D. All of the above

16. Wood, paper and combustibles would be classified as a Class _____ fire.

A. A

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B. B

C. C

D. D

17. A Class B fire would include:

A. Flammable liquids

B. Halon

C. Burning metal

D. Wood, paper, and combustibles

18. An electrical fire would be extinguished by what type of extinguisher?

A. Class D extinguisher

B. Class C extinguisher

C. Class ABC extinguisher

D. Both B and C

19. An approved flammable liquid container has:

A. Spring loaded top

B. Flame arrester

C. Bonding and grounding

D. Both A and B

20. No matter how small or large a fire you should always:

A. Use an ABC Class extinguisher

B. Notify your supervisor

C. Call the fire department.

D. Leave the building immediately

TEST #31

“ FIRE PREVENTION AND SAFETY “

1. How many people are killed as a result of fire each year?

A. 500

B. 5,000

C. 50,000

2. Which of these ingredients are required to support a fire?

A. Fuel

B. Heat

C. Oxygen

3. Class A fires involve electrical wires or equipment? TRUE or FALSE

4. The best extinguisher to use to put out a Class A fire is:

A. Type A

B. Type B

C. Type C

D. Any of the above

5. Which of the following are one of the four major causes of workplace fires?

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A. Arson

B. Smoking

C. Explosions

6. Which of the following are major classes of fires?

A. Class A

B. Class D

C. Class E

7. The “P” in the PASS system stands for “Point the Extinguisher”?

TRUE or FALSE

TEST #32

“ HOW TO INVESTIGATE AN ACCIDENT ”

1. Accidents cannot be prevented or controlled. TRUE or FALSE

2. Accidents are easily divided into two categories: injury and non-injury.

TRUE or FALSE

3. Accident investigation is a very necessary and active part of accident prevention.

TRUE or FALSE

4. The purpose of accident investigation is to determine whether or not the

company was at fault. TRUE or FALSE

5. Coding is vital in providing accident statistics. TRUE or FALSE

6. Temperature, light, noise, or weather is not mentioned on the accident

investigation report. TRUE or FALSE

7. According to the example in this training program, a ladder must be inspected for

slippery substances prior to use. TRUE or FALSE

8. It is very costly to investigate every accident, whether or not there was injury.

TRUE or FALSE

9. The purpose of an investigation is simply to gather information to consider

employee negligence or incompetence. TRUE or FALSE.

10. All accident report forms should include employer characteristics.

TRUE or FALSE.

11. Who is responsible for assigning the proper coding or grouping needed for future

analysis?

A. Supervisors

B. Investigators

C. Owners

D. Both A and B

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12. Which of the following should be included as other conditions possibly affecting

the accident?

A. Temperature

B. Light

C. Noise

D. All of the above

13. When equipment is involved it is important to record what information about the

equipment?

A. Brand

B. Age

C. Distinguishing features

D. All of the above

14. The most important part of accident information analysis is to determine:

A. Company responsibility

B. Employee responsibility

C. Similar patterns

D. Legal implications and precautions

15. According to this program, what could best prevent the maintenance man from

experiencing an injury?

A. Proper footwear

B. Good housekeeping

C. Inspection prior to use

D. All of the above

16. The ultimate use for accident reports as concerning supervisors is:

A. Taking corrective measures

B. Assessing employee responsibility

C. Determining what groups or coding to incorporate

D. None of these

17. When you are unsure about safety guidelines, policies, or procedures, always:

A. Ask a co-worker

B. Consult with your supervisor or manager

C. Refer to OSHA and NIOSH standards

D. Read your employee handbook

18. Which of the following should NOT be reported in an accident report form?

A. Near misses

B. Employee’ time-full/part-time, seasonal, etc.

C. Supervisor’s next of kin

D. A narrative description of the accident

19. Which of the following is NOT a source for information to be filed in the accident

report?

A. Manufacturer’s label

B. Employee’s medical history

C. Employee’s non-involved family

D. Employee’s co-workers

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20. Who is responsible for providing written, documented training to those involved in

an accident?

A. Immediate supervisor

B. Management

C. Safety training personnel

D. Any of the above

TEST #33

“ SAFETY AUDITS “

1. A safety audit is an examination of a facility or work area to make sure it is as

safe as possible? TRUE or FALSE

2. Which of the following is not part of a system of controls?

A. Administrative controls

B. Engineering controls

C. Personal protective equipment

D. Personnel records

3. An effective safety audit should also include a close look at a facility’s equipment

maintenance program. TRUE or FALSE

4. Which of the following is considered emergency equipment?

A. Fire extinguishers

B. Eye wash stations

C. First aid kits

D. All of the above

5. Effective safety training can prevent all accidents? TRUE or FALSE

6. As part of a safety audit, you should determine if accidents are investigated at

your facility? TRUE or FALSE

7. It is better to omit a safety procedure than to be late in getting a job finished?

TRUE or FALSE

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